Hey Catherine,
I had to read your post about 5 times before I understood it. Let me see if I understand correctly. Badiou seems to be saying, and I'm reading him completely out of context as I haven't read him at all, that essentially there is no more censorship, and that without censorship, Art and even thought can not exist. He then recommends to add a sort of self censorship so art can exist.
Then your question is do we agree with him that the situation nowadays is that there is no censorship.
Of course I'm flattening things, but in general this seems to me your question.
Some notes.
First, his claim is reminiscent of Foucault's view of eroticism, but I won't go into that.
Second, he is not exactly saying that there is no censorship but a more complicated: control by means of "commercial circulation and democratic communication."
(This reminds me of the difference Agamben, who quotes somebody I can't remember at the moment, makes regarding how our voting today is essentially a poll and not a real choice. The difference between the two is somewhat elusive and hard to explain, but when you get it, it is quite interesting.)
To give a crude, banal, reading of him, we can say that today it is not that you are not allowed to paint a penis, but painting it would limit who and for how much you would sell it for.
This is very different from saying you can paint anything. He uses the word censorship as something stronger than getting an x rating.
Now you see that the question becomes not whether he is correct about our times, but whether he is correct about the past? He seems to assume art, and thought, once existed. Perhaps even existed in the not too far past. Well, was the situation different at the time?
Yes and no. This seems to me a VERY complicated question so I won't enter into it here, but this is the question. If you think it was really the same, then his case is baseless. If you agree, then perhaps he has a case.
One last remark - he doesn't have a case. At least not in any meaningful way. Whatever good art or thought was produced in the past we can claim came from self-censorship, and whatever is good now he'll claim self-censorship. Hence there is no scientific claim here, but a philosophical one. A claim of difference between our time and the past with regards this question.
What was the censorship of the greeks one might ask?